NCLEX PRACTICE QUESTIONS PART - 05 ANSWERS AND RATIONALES...
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151. Answer A is correct. Following a total mastectomy, the client’s right arm should be elevated on pillows to facilitate lymph drainage. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they would not help facilitate lymph drainage and would create increased edema in the affected extremity.
152. Answer B is correct. Nitroglycerin is used to dilate coronary blood vessels, which pro-vides improved circulation to the myocardium. Answers A, C, and D describe the effects of digoxin, not nitroglycerin; therefore, they are incorrect.
153. Answer D is correct.
The client with flail chest will exhibit paradoxical respirations. (With inspiration, the affected side will move inward; with expiration, the affected side will move outward. Flail chest is frequently associated with high-speed motor vehicle accidents.) Answer A is incorrect because air or blood would be present in the tho-racic cavity. Answer B is incorrect because the trachea would be shifted to the affected side. Answer C is incorrect because interstitial edema would be present.
154. Answer D is correct. Absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are characterized by brief lapses in consciousness accompanied by rapid eye blinking, lip smacking, and minor myoclonus of the upper extremities. Answer A refers to myoclonic seizure; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer B refers to tonic clonic, formerly known as grand mal seizures; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer C refers to atonic seizures; therefore, it is incorrect.
155. Answer C is correct. Keeping the room quiet and the lights dimmed will decrease sensory stimulation and help keep the client oriented during withdrawal from alcohol. Answer A is incorrect because darkness would increase confusion and disoriention in the client during withdrawal. Answers B and D are incorrect because they can con-tribute to the development of seizures.
156. Answer A is correct.
A side effect of antipsychotic medication is the development of Parkinsonian symptoms. Answers B and C are incorrect choices because they are used to reverse Parkinsonian symptoms in the client taking antipsychotic medication. Answer D is incorrect because the medication is an anticonvulsant used to stabilize mood. Parkinsonian symptoms are not associated with anticonvulsant medication.
157. Answer B is correct. Exercises, such as swimming, that provide light passive resist-ance are best for the child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. Answers A and C require movement of the hands and fingers that could be too painful for the child with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because it requires the use of larger joints affected by the disease.
158. Answer A is correct. Reports of cough and fever in the client with AIDS suggest infection with pneumocystis carinii, which requires immediate intervention. Answers B, C, and D have conditions with more predictable outcomes; therefore, they are incor-rect.
159. Answer B is correct.
The client’s diabetes is well under control. Answer A is incorrect because it will lead to elevated glucose levels. Answer C is incorrect because the diet and insulin dose are appropriate for the client. Answer D is incorrect because the desired range for glycosylated hemoglobin in the adult client is 2.5%–5.9%.
160. Answer C is correct.
The purpose of the dexamethasone-suppression test is to identi-fy clients who will benefit from therapy with antidepressants and electroconvulsive therapy rather than psychological or social interventions. Answers A, B, and D contain inaccurate statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
161. Answer A is correct.
Stadol reduces the perception of pain, which allows the post-operative client to rest. Answers B and C are not affected by the medication; therefore, they are incorrect. Relief of pain generally results in less nausea, but it is not the intended effect of the medication; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
162. Answer B is correct. Children with cystic fibrosis are susceptible to chronic sinusitis and nasal polyps, which might require surgical removal. Answer A is incorrect because it is a congenital condition in which there is a bony obstruction between the nares and the pharynx. Answers C and D are not specific to the child with cystic fibro-sis; therefore, they are incorrect.
163. Answer C is correct.
During the emergent phase, the nursing priority for a client with burns confined to the lower body would focus on the risk for fluid volume deficit. Answers A and B are incorrect because there is no indication that the airway is involved. Answer D is incorrect because pain does not take priority over the manage-ment of hypovolemia.
164. Answer D is correct.
Lipid-lowering agents are contraindicated in the client with active liver disease. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not con-traindicated in the client with active liver disease.
165. Answer D is correct.
An appropriate activity for the client who has recently had an MI is sitting on the side of the bed for 5 minutes three times a day with assistance. Answers A and C are incorrect because they increase the workload on the heart too soon after the MI. Answer B is incorrect because it does not allow the client enough activity.
166. Answer C is correct.
The client with hypertension should be placed on a low sodium, low cholesterol, high fiber diet. Oatmeal is low in sodium and high in fiber. Answer A is incorrect because cornflakes and whole milk are higher in sodium and are poor sources of fiber. Answers B and D are incorrect choices because they contain animal proteins that are high in both cholesterol and sodium.
167. Answer A is correct. Following hypospadias repair, the child will need to avoid strad-dle toys, such as a rocking horse, until allowed by the surgeon. Answers B, C, and D do not relate to the post-operative care of the child with hypospadias; therefore, they are incorrect.
168. Answer A is correct.
Eating carbohydrates such as dry crackers or toast before aris-ing helps to alleviate morning sickness. Answer B is incorrect because the additional fat might increase the client’s nausea. Answer C is incorrect because the client does not need to skip meals. Answer D is the treatment of hypoglycemia, not morning sick-ness; therefore, it is incorrect.
169. Answer D is correct.
An esophageal tamponade is used to control bleeding in the client with esophageal varices. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they can be assigned to either the novice RN or the LPN with assisted care by the nursing assis-tant.
170. Answer B is correct.
The modified Blalock Taussig procedure is a palliative procedure in which the subclavian artery is joined to the pulmonary artery, thus allowing more blood to reach the lungs. Answers A, C, and D contain inaccurate statements; there-fore, they are incorrect.
171. Answer A is correct.
The stethoscope should be left in the client’s room for future use. The stethoscope should not be returned to the exam room or the nurse’s station; therefore, answers B and D are incorrect. The stethoscope should not be used to assess other clients; therefore, answer C is incorrect.
172. Answer B is correct.
The medication will be needed throughout the child’s lifetime. Answers A, C, and D contain inaccurate statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
173. Answer B is correct. Glucotrol XL is given once a day with breakfast. Answer A is incorrect because the client would develop hypoglycemia while sleeping. Answers C and D are incorrect choices because the client would develop hypoglycemia later in the day or evening.
174. Answer D is correct.
The client with myasthenia develops progressive weakness that worsens during the day. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to symptoms of multiple sclerosis. Answer B is incorrect because it refers to symptoms of Guillain Barre syndrome. Answer C is incorrect because it refers to Parkinson’s disease.
175. Answer D is correct. Immaturity of the kidneys places the preterm infant at greater risk for toxicity to aminoglycosides. Answers A, B, and C are true regarding the preterm infant, but they do not increase the risk for toxicity to the drug; therefore, they are incorrect.
176. Answer B is correct.
To prevent fractures, the parents should lift the infant by the buttocks rather than the ankles when diapering. Answer A is incorrect because infants with osteogenesis imperfecta have normal calcium and phosphorus levels. Answer C is incorrect because the condition is not temporary. Answer D is incorrect because the teeth and the sclera are also affected.
177. Answer C is correct. Following a hip replacement, the client should avoid hip flexion. Sitting on a soft, low sofa permits hip flexion and increases the difficulty of standing. Having a pet is important to the client’s emotional wellbeing; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Answers B and D indicate that the nurse’s teaching has been effective; there-fore, they are incorrect.
178. Answer A is correct. Withholding oral intake will help stop the inflammatory process by reducing the secretion of pancreatic enzymes. Answer B is incorrect because the client requires exogenous insulin. Answer C is incorrect because it does not prevent the secretion of gastric acid. Answer D is incorrect because it does not eliminate the need for pain medication.
179. Answer B is correct.
A rigid or boardlike abdomen is suggestive of peritonitis, which is a complication of diverticulitis. Answers A, C, and D are common findings in diverti-culitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
180. Answer D is correct. Vancomycin should be administered slowly to prevent ―redman‖ syndrome. Answer A is incorrect because the medication is not given IV push. Answers B and C are incorrect choices because they allow the medication to be given too rapidly.
181. Answer A is correct. Protigmine is used to treat clients with myasthenia gravis. Answer B is incorrect because it is used to reverse the effects of neostigmine. Answer C is incorrect because the drug is unrelated to the treatment of myasthenia gravis. Answer D is incorrect because it is the test for myasthenia gravis.
182. Answer D is correct.
The suggested diet for the client with AIDS is one that is high calorie, high protein, and low fat. Clients with AIDS have a reduced tolerance to fat because of the disease, as well as side effects from some antiviral medications; there-fore, answers A and C are incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the client needs a high-protein diet.
183. Answer B is correct.
The nurse can help ready the child with cerebral palsy for speech therapy by providing activities that help the child develop tongue control. Most children with cerebral palsy have visual and auditory difficulties that require glasses or hearing devices rather than rehabilitative training; therefore, answers A and C are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because video games are not appropriate to the age or develop-mental level for the child with cerebral palsy.
184. Answer A is correct.
The client with duodenal ulcers commonly complains of epigastric pain that is relieved by eating a meal or snack. Answer B is incorrect because the client with a duodenal ulcer frequently reports weight gain. Answers C and D are incorrect because they describe symptoms associated with gastric ulcers.
185. Answer D is correct. Complications following a stapedectomy include damage to the seventh cranial nerve that results in changes in taste or facial sensation. Answers A and B are incorrect because they are expected immediately following a stapedectomy. Answer C is incorrect because it involves the twelfth cranial nerve (hypoglossal nerve).
186. Answer C is correct.
Most infants begin nocturnal sleep lasting 9–11 hours by 3–4 months of age. Answers A and B are incorrect because the infant is still waking for nighttime feedings. Answer D is incorrect because it does not answer the question.
187. Answer A is correct.
The goal of oxygen therapy for the client with emphysema is maintaining a PaO2 of 50 to 60mmHg. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the PaO2 levels are too high.
188. Answer B is correct.
The medication is having its intended effect when the client’s urine specific gravity is within the normal range. Answers A and D refer to the client with dia-betes mellitus not diabetes insipidus; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it is not related to diabetes insipidus.
189. Answer A is correct.
The child with myelomeningocele is at greatest risk for the development of latex allergy because of repeated exposure to latex products during surgery and from numerous urinary catheterizations. The clients in answers B, C, and D are much less likely to be exposed to latex; therefore, they are incorrect.
190. Answer D is correct.
The therapeutic range for aminophylline is 10–20 micrograms/mL. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are too low to be therapeutic.
191. Answer C is correct.
The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with acromegaly focuses on the risk for ineffective airway clearance. Answers A, B, and D apply to the client with acromegaly but do not take priority; therefore, they are incorrect.
192. Answer C is correct.
The nurse can help increase ventilation and perfusion to all areas of the lungs by turning the client every hour. Rocking beds can also be used to keep the client in constant motion. Answer A is incorrect because the client with ARDS will have respirations controlled by the ventilator. Answer B is incorrect because the nurse must have a physician’s order to increase the PEEP. Answer D is incorrect because it will not increase ventilation and perfusion.
193. Answer D is correct.
The nurse or parent should use a cupped hand when performing chest percussion. Answer A is incorrect because the hand should be cupped. Answer B is incorrect because the child’s position should be changed every 5–10 minutes, and the whole session should be limited to 20 minutes. Answer C is incorrect because chest per-cussion should be done before meals.
194. Answer A is correct.
The client with Addison’s disease requires lifetime management with steroids. The nurse should stress the importance of taking the medication exactly as directed by the physician, as well as reporting adverse reactions to the medication. The client should be cautioned not to skip doses or to abruptly discontinue the medication. Answers B, C, and D should be included in the client’s teaching but do not pose life-threatening consequences; therefore, they are incorrect.
195. Answer B is correct.
Air embolus can occur with insertion, maintenance, and removal of central line catheters. The client’s history of recent removal of a central line and the development of dyspnea, substernal chest pain, confusion, and fear suggest an air embolus. Answer A is incorrect because it is not associated with central line use. Answer C is incorrect because the symptoms do not suggest bleeding. Answer D is incorrect because it is not a complication of central line use.
196. Answer A is correct.
No more than 1mL should be given in the vastus lateralis of the infant. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the dorsogluteal and ventrogluteal muscles are not used for injections in the infant.
197. Answer C is correct.
Depot injections of Haldol are administered every 4 weeks. Answers A and B are incorrect because the medication is still in the client’s system. Answer D is incorrect because the medication has been eliminated from the client’s system, which allows the symptoms of schizophrenia to return.
198. Answer C is correct.
The client should take a deep breath and hold it (Valsalva maneuver) when the central line is being removed. This increases the intrathoracic pressure and decreases the likelihood of having an air embolus. Answers A and B do not increase intrathoracic pressure; therefore, they are incorrect for the situation. Answer D increases the likelihood of air embolus; therefore, it is incorrect.
199. Answer D is correct.
The earliest sign of cystic fibrosis is meconium ileus, which may be present in the newborn with the disease. Answers A, B, and C are later mani-festations; therefore, they are incorrect.
200. Answer D is correct. Tucking a disposable diaper at the perineal opening will help prevent soiling of the cast by urine and stool. Answer A is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated. Answer B is incorrect because the child can place the crayons beneath the cast, causing pressure areas to develop. Answer C is incorrect because the child does not need high-calorie foods that would cause weight gain while she is immobilized by the cast.
201. Answer B is correct. Coolness and discoloration of the reimplanted digits indicates compromised circulation, which should be reported immediately to the physician. The temperature should be monitored, but the client would receive antibiotics to prevent infection; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Answers C and D are expected following amputation and reimplantation; therefore, they are incorrect.
202. Answer C is correct.
The obstetrical client under age 18 is at greatest risk for CPD because pelvic growth is not fully completed. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because these clients are not as likely to have CPD.
203. Answer A is correct. Priority of care should focus on maintaining the client’s airway. Answers B and C are important to the client’s care, but they do not take priority over maintaining the client’s airway; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the client will require a passive range of motion exercise.
204. Answer B is correct. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are inaccurate amounts.
205. Answer A is correct. Following extracorporeal lithotripsy, the urine will appear cherry red in color but will gradually change to clear urine. Answer B is incorrect because the urine will be red, not orange. Answer C is incorrect because the urine will be not be dark red or cloudy in appearance. Answer D is incorrect because it describes the urinary output of the client with acute glomerulonephritis.
206. Answer A is correct. Special rotational or directional catheters will be used to remove the plaque. Answer B is incorrect because it describes ablation. Answer C is incorrect because it describes percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty. Answer D is incorrect because it refers to lipid-lowering agents.
207. Answer C is correct.
A stage II pressure ulcer has cracks and blisters with areas of redness and induration. Answer A is incorrect because it describes the appearance of a stage IV pressure ulcer. Answer B is incorrect because it describes the appearance of a stage III pressure ulcer. Answer D is incorrect because it describes the appear-ance of a stage I pressure ulcer.
209. Answer B is correct.
An adverse reaction to Cognex is drug-induced hepatitis. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of jaundice. Answers A, C, and D are incor-rect because they are not associated with the use of Cognex.
210. Answer A is correct.
The child with cystic fibrosis needs a diet that is high in calo-ries, with high protein and moderate amounts of fat. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not meet the nutritional requirements imposed by the disease.
211. Answer C is correct. Apricots are low in potassium; therefore, this is a suitable snack for the client on a potassium-restricted diet. Raisins, oranges, and bananas are all high in potassium; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
212. Answer B is correct. Hyperventilation reduces swelling and increased intracranial pressure by decreasing cerebral blood flow. Answers A, C, and D do not pertain to the situation; therefore, they are incorrect.
213. Answer B is correct.
No special preparation is needed for the blood test for H. pylori. Answer A is incorrect because the client is not NPO before the test. Answer C is incor-rect because it refers to preparation for the breath test. Answer D is incorrect because glucose is not administered before the test.
214. Answer B is correct.
Oral potassium supplements should be given in at least 4oz of juice or other liquid such as fruit punch to disguise the unpleasant taste. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they cause gastric upset.
215. Answer D is correct.
The client with hypomagnesemia will have a positive Trousseau’s sign. Answer A is incorrect because the client would have tachycardia. Answer B is incorrect because the client would have a positive Chvostek’s sign. Answer C is incorrect because the client would have hypotension.
216. Answer D is correct.
Fresh specimens are essential for an accurate diagnosis of CMV. Answer A is incorrect because cultures of urine, sputum, and oral swab are preferred. Answer B is incorrect because pregnant caregivers should not be assigned to care for clients with suspected or known infection with CMV. Answer C is incorrect because a convalescent culture is obtained 2–4 weeks after diagnosis.
217. Answer B is correct.
The client with congestive heart failure who reports coughing up frothy sputum should be carefully evaluated for increasing pulmonary edema, which requires immediate treatment. Answers A, C, and D involve chronic conditions with complications that require skilled nursing care and assessment, but they do not present immediate life-threatening situations; therefore, they are incorrect.
218. Answer B is correct.
The client with neutropenia needs to be placed in a private room in protective isolation. The other clients can be placed in the room with other clients; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
219. Answer B is correct. Asterixis is a symptom of impending liver failure, so the client should be cared for by the RN. The remaining clients can be cared for by the LPN; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
219. Answer D is correct. Adverse reactions to phenytoin include agranulocytosis. The client’s WBC is abnormally low and should be reported to the physician immediately. Answer A is incorrect because elevations in serum creatinine are expected in the client with chronic renal failure. Answer B is wrong because a positive C reactive protein is usually present in those with rheumatic fever. Answer C is wrong because a hematocrit of 52% in a client with gastroenteritis can be expected due to dehydration.
220. Answer D is correct.
The newly licensed nurse should not be assigned to provide pri-mary care for the client with noncardiogenic pulmonary edema (ARDS) because the client’s condition warrants care by an experienced RN. Answers A, B, and C are incor-rect because the newly licensed nurse could assume primary care for clients with those conditions.
221. Answer C is correct.
The client with a lumbar laminectomy can be safely cared for by the LPN. Answer A is incorrect because the client with a high cervical injury immobi-lized by skeletal traction is best cared for by the RN. Answers B and D are incorrect choices because these clients have conditions that require intravenous medication, which requires the skill of the RN.
222. Answer A is correct.
The client with a thoracotomy who has 110mL of drainage in the past hour has excessive bleeding that should be evaluated and reported to the physician immediately. A temperature of 100°F following a surgery is not unusual; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Feelings of urinary urgency are normal after a transurethral prostatectomy; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Diminished loss of hearing in the hours following a stapedectomy is expected due to the swelling and accumulation of blood in the inner ear; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
223. Answer A is correct. Increased jaundice and prolonged prothrombin time are indications that the liver is not working. Answer B is incorrect because the symptoms suggest infection. Answer C is incorrect because the symptoms suggest obstruction. Answer D is incorrect because the symptoms are associated with renal failure.
224. Answer A is correct.
The client with adrenal insufficiency suffers from fluid volume deficit and acidosis. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a life-threatening acid-based imbalance.
225. Answer D is correct. Sulfamylon produces a burning sensation when applied; there-fore, the client should receive pain medication 30 minutes before application. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to therapy with silver nitrate. Answer B is incorrect because it refers therapy with Silvadene. Answer C is incorrect because it refers thera-py with to Betadine.
226. Answer D is correct. Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect of Dilantin, so the nurse should provide oral hygiene and gum care every shift. Answers A, B, and C do not apply to the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
227. Answer C is correct. Adverse reactions to Captoten include a decreased white cell count. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are associated with the med-ication.
228. Answer C is correct.
Zofran is given before chemotherapy to prevent nausea. Answers A, B, and D are not associated with the medication; therefore, they are incor-rect.
229. Answer A is correct. When administering ear drops to a child under 3 years of age, the nurse should pull the ear down and back to straighten the ear canal. Answers B and D are incorrect positions for administering ear drops. Answer C is used for administering ear drops to the adult client.
230. Answer A is correct. Antibiotics such as Achromycin should not be taken with antacids. Answers B, C, and D may be taken with antibiotics; therefore, they are incor-rect.
231. Answer C is correct.
The nurse should carefully monitor the client taking Thorazine for signs of infection that can quickly become overwhelming. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are expected side effects of the medication.
232. Answer A is correct. Claratin does not produce sedation like other antihistamines. Answers B, C, and D are inaccurate statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
233. Answer B is correct.
A cotton-tipped swab is used to apply the suspension to the affected areas. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not ensure that the medication reaches the affected areas.
234. Answer A is correct.
Iron is better absorbed when taken with ascorbic acid. Orange juice is an excellent source of ascorbic acid. Answer B is incorrect because the med-ication should be taken with orange juice or tomato juice. Answer C is incorrect because iron should not be taken with milk because it interferes with absorption. Answer D is incorrect because apple juice does not contain high amounts of ascorbic acid.
235. Answer A is correct. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen poisoning. Answer B is incorrect because it is the antidote for iron poisoning. Answer C is incor-rect because it is the treatment for lead poisoning. Answer D is incorrect because it is used for noncorrosive poisonings.
236. Answer D is correct.
The client should hold the cane in the unaffected side. Answer A is incorrect because this answer instructs the client to hold the cane in the affected side. It will not be necessary for the client to use a walker, and advancing the cane with the affected leg is not correct; thus, answers B and C are incorrect.
237. Answer A is correct.
Linear accelerator therapy is done in the radium department and does not make the client radioactive. Answer B is incorrect because there is no radiation emitted from the client. Answer C is incorrect because it is not necessary for the nursing assistant to wear an apron when caring for this client. Answer D is incorrect because there is no need to reassign the nursing assistant.
238. Answer D is correct.
The client undergoing an angiogram will experience a warm sensation as the dye is injected. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with an angiogram.
239. Answer B is correct.
Semi-liquids are more easily swallowed by the client with dys-phagia than either liquids or solids. Answers A, C, and D do not improve the client’s ability to swallow, so they are incorrect choices.
240. Answer A is correct. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg position will engorge the vessels, make insertion of the catheter easier, and lessen the likelihood of air entering the central line. Answer B is incorrect because the client will not be more comfortable in the Trendelenburg position. Answers C and D are not correct statements.
241. Answer B is correct. Taking deep breaths will decrease the discomfort experienced during removal of the drain. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect statements because they do not decrease the discomfort during removal of the drain.
242. Answer B is correct. Increased voiding at night is a symptom of right-sided heart fail-ure. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are symptoms of left-sided heart failure.
243. Answer B is correct.
The CPM machine should not be set at 90° flexion until the fifth post-operative day. Answers A, C, and D are expected findings and do not require immediate nursing intervention; therefore, they are incorrect.
244. Answer D is correct.
The multiparous client with a large newborn has the greatest risk for postpartal hemorrhage. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect choices because they do not have a greater risk for postpartal hemorrhage.
245. Answer B is correct.
The medication should be administered using the calibrated dropper that comes with the medication. Answers A and C are incorrect because part or all of the medication could be lost during administration. Answer D is incorrect because part or all of the medication will be lost if the child does not finish the bottle.
246. Answer C is correct. Atropine is contraindicated in the client with glaucoma because the medication increases intraocular pressure. Answers A, B, and D are not contraindicated in the client with glaucoma; therefore, they are incorrect answers.
247. Answer B is correct.
Aged cheese, wine, and smoked or pickled meats should be avoided by the client taking an MAOI, not a phenothiazine. Answers A, C, and D are included in the discharge teaching of a client receiving chlorpromazine (Thorazine).
248. Answer D is correct. Leaving a nightlight on during the evening and night shifts helps the client remain oriented to the environment and fosters independence. Answers A and B will not decrease the client’s confusion. Answer C will increase the likelihood of confusion in an elderly client.
249. Answer C is correct. Elevations in white cell count indicate the presence of infection, which requires treatment before surgery. Answers A, B, and D are within normal limits and require no intervention.
250. Answer A is correct. Akathisia is an adverse extrapyramidal side effect of many older antipsychotic medications such as haloperidol and chlorpromazine. Answers B, C, and D are not associated with the use of haloperidol.
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The technological element of the work additionally calls for the pharmacy tech practice test to have excellent business abilities and also they might be likewise be called for to identify medication containers and also classify them under the appropriate name or team - the 100 mg tag should take place the 100 mg container. Simply one mistake, one little oversight might lead to really unfavorable repercussions for a client.
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