NCLEX PRACTICE QUESTIONS. PART =4 ANSWERS AND RATIONALES
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📖Answers and Rationales For Practice Questions part 4
Practice Questions Part 4 Answer and Rationales are Given Below read now
1. Answer A is correct.
1. Answer A is correct.
The major complication of SLE is lupus nephritis, which results in end-stage renal disease. SLE affects the musculoskeletal, integumentary, renal, nervous, and cardiovascular systems, but the major complication is renal involvement; therefore, answers B and D are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the SLE produces a “butterfly” rash, not desquamation.
The major complication of SLE is lupus nephritis, which results in end-stage renal disease. SLE affects the musculoskeletal, integumentary, renal, nervous, and cardiovascular systems, but the major complication is renal involvement; therefore, answers B and D are incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the SLE produces a “butterfly” rash, not desquamation.
2. Answer A is correct. Finasteride is an androgen inhibitor; therefore, women who are pregnant or who might become pregnant should be told to avoid touching the tablets. Answer B is incorrect because there are no benefits to giving the medication with food. Answer C is incorrect because the medication can take 6 months to a year to be effective. Answer D is not an accurate statement; therefore, it is incorrect.
3. Answer D is correct.
The nurse can expect to find the presence of Trendelenburg sign. (While bearing weight on the affected hip, the pelvis tilts downward on the unaffected side instead of tilting upward, as expected with normal stability). Scarf sign is a characteristic of the preterm newborn; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Harlequin sign can be found in normal newborns and indicates transient changes in circulation; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because Cullen’s sign is an indication of intra-abdominal bleeding.
4. Answer C is correct.
A diet that is high in fat and refined carbohydrates increases the risk of colorectal cancer. High fat content results in an increase in fecal bile acids, which facilitate carcinogenic changes. Refined carbohydrates increase the transit time of food through the gastrointestinal tract and increase the exposure time of the intestinal mucosa to cancer-causing substances. Answers A, B, and D do not relate to the question; therefore, they are incorrect.
5. Answer B is correct.
The nurse should avoid giving the infant a pacifier or bottle because sucking is not permitted. Holding the infant cradled in the arms, providing a mobile, and offering sterile water using a Breck feeder are permitted; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
6. Answer A is correct.
The client with asterixis or “flapping tremors” will have irregular flexion and extension of the wrists when the arms are extended and the wrist is hyperextended with the fingers separated. Asterixis is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Answers B, C, and D do not relate to asterixis; therefore, they are incorrect.
7. Answer D is correct.
The client with esophageal varices might develop spontaneous bleeding from the mechanical irritation caused by taking capsules; therefore, the nurse should request the medication in an alternative form such as a suspension. Answer A is incorrect because it does not best meet the client’s needs. Answer B is incorrect because it is not the best means of preventing bleeding. Answer C is incorrect because the medications should not be given with milk or antacids.
2. Answer A is correct. Finasteride is an androgen inhibitor; therefore, women who are pregnant or who might become pregnant should be told to avoid touching the tablets. Answer B is incorrect because there are no benefits to giving the medication with food. Answer C is incorrect because the medication can take 6 months to a year to be effective. Answer D is not an accurate statement; therefore, it is incorrect.
3. Answer D is correct.
The nurse can expect to find the presence of Trendelenburg sign. (While bearing weight on the affected hip, the pelvis tilts downward on the unaffected side instead of tilting upward, as expected with normal stability). Scarf sign is a characteristic of the preterm newborn; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Harlequin sign can be found in normal newborns and indicates transient changes in circulation; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because Cullen’s sign is an indication of intra-abdominal bleeding.
4. Answer C is correct.
A diet that is high in fat and refined carbohydrates increases the risk of colorectal cancer. High fat content results in an increase in fecal bile acids, which facilitate carcinogenic changes. Refined carbohydrates increase the transit time of food through the gastrointestinal tract and increase the exposure time of the intestinal mucosa to cancer-causing substances. Answers A, B, and D do not relate to the question; therefore, they are incorrect.
5. Answer B is correct.
The nurse should avoid giving the infant a pacifier or bottle because sucking is not permitted. Holding the infant cradled in the arms, providing a mobile, and offering sterile water using a Breck feeder are permitted; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
6. Answer A is correct.
The client with asterixis or “flapping tremors” will have irregular flexion and extension of the wrists when the arms are extended and the wrist is hyperextended with the fingers separated. Asterixis is associated with hepatic encephalopathy. Answers B, C, and D do not relate to asterixis; therefore, they are incorrect.
7. Answer D is correct.
The client with esophageal varices might develop spontaneous bleeding from the mechanical irritation caused by taking capsules; therefore, the nurse should request the medication in an alternative form such as a suspension. Answer A is incorrect because it does not best meet the client’s needs. Answer B is incorrect because it is not the best means of preventing bleeding. Answer C is incorrect because the medications should not be given with milk or antacids.
8. Answer A is correct.
Surgical repair of an inguinal hernia is recommended to prevent strangulation of the bowel, which could result in intestinal obstruction and necrosis. Answer B does not relate to an inguinal hernia; therefore, it is incorrect. Bile salts,which are important to the digestion of fats, are produced by the liver, not the intestines; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Repair of the inguinal hernia will prevent swelling and obstruction associated with strangulation, but it will not increase intestinal motility; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
8. Answer A is correct.
Surgical repair of an inguinal hernia is recommended to prevent strangulation of the bowel, which could result in intestinal obstruction and necrosis. Answer B does not relate to an inguinal hernia; therefore, it is incorrect. Bile salts,which are important to the digestion of fats, are produced by the liver, not the intestines; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Repair of the inguinal hernia will prevent swelling and obstruction associated with strangulation, but it will not increase intestinal motility; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
9. Answer A is correct. Tomatoes are a poor source of iron, although they are an excellent source of vitamin C, which increases iron absorption. Answers B, C, and D are good sources of iron; therefore, they are incorrect.
10. Answer D is correct. Serum amylase levels greater than 200 units/dL help confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Elevations of blood glucose occur with conditions other than acute pancreatitis; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Elevations in WBC are associated with infection and are not specific to acute pancreatitis; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is within the normal range; therefore, it is incorrect.
11. Answer A is correct. Periodically lying in a prone position without a pillow will help prevent the flexion of the spine that occurs with Parkinson’s disease. Answers B and C flex the spine; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is not realistic because position changes during sleep; therefore, it is incorrect.
12. Answer C is correct. The medication should be administered slowly (no more than 50mg per minute); otherwise, cardiac arrhythmias can occur. Answer A is incorrect because the medication must be given slowly. Dextrose solutions cause the medication to crystallize in the line and the medication should be given through a large vein to prevent “purple glove” syndrome; therefore, answers B and D are incorrect.
13. Answer B is correct. The client recovering from acute pancreatitis needs a diet that is high in calories and low in fat. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they can increase the client’s discomfort.
14. Answer A is correct. The client with polycythemia vera has an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells that results in increased viscosity of the blood. Increases in blood pressure further tax the overworked heart. Answers B, C, and D do not directly relate to the condition; therefore, they are incorrect.
15. Answer B is correct. Dressing in extra layers of clothing will help decrease the feeling of being cold that is experienced by the client with hypothyroidism. Decreased sensation and decreased alertness are common in the client with hypothyroidism. The use of electric blankets and heating pads can result in burns, making answers A and C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the client with hypothyroidism has dry skin, and a hot bath morning and evening would make her condition worse.
16. Answer A is correct.
An ICP of 17mmHg should be reported to the doctor because it is elevated. (The ICP normally ranges from 4mmHg to 10mmHg, with upper limits of 15mmHg.) Answer B is incorrect because the pressure is not normal. Answer C is incorrect because the pressure is not low. Answer D is incorrect because the ICP reading provides a more reliable measurement than the Glascow coma scale.
17. Answer D is correct.
A history of frequent alcohol and tobacco use is the most significant factor in the development of cancer of the larynx. Answers A, B, and C are also factors in the development of laryngeal cancer but they are not the most significant; therefore, they are incorrect.
18. Answer B is correct. Numbness and tingling in the extremities is common in the client with pernicious anemia, but not those with other types of anemia. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are symptoms of all types of anemia.
19. Answer A is correct. Lying prone and allowing the feet to hang over the end of the mattress will help prevent flexion contractures. The client should be told to do this several times a day. Answers B, C, and D do not help prevent flexion contractures; therefore, they are incorrect.
20. Answer B is correct. The client with echolalia will repeat words or phrases used by others. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to clang association. Answer C is incorrect because it refers to circumstantiality. Answer D is incorrect because it refers to neologisms.
21. Answer D is correct.
The presence of fetal hemoglobin until about 6 months of age protects affected infants from episodes of sickling. Answer A is incorrect because it is an untrue statement. Answer B is incorrect because infants do have insensible fluid loss. Answer C is incorrect because respiratory infections such as bronchiolitis and otitis media can cause fever and dehydration, which cause sickle cell crisis.
22. Answer C is correct. The warmth from holding a cup of coffee or hot chocolate helps to relieve the pain and stiffness in the hands of the client with rheumatoid arthritis. Answers A, B, and D do not relieve the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis; therefore, they are incorrect.
23. Answer C is correct. If the client’s own blood type and Rh are not available, the safest transfusion is O negative blood. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they can cause reactions that can prove fatal to the client.
24. Answer D is correct. Narcan is a narcotic antagonist that blocks the effects of the client’s pain medication; therefore, the client will experience sudden, intense pain. Answers A, B, and C do not relate to the client’s condition and the administration of Narcan; therefore, they are incorrect.
25. Answer A is correct. The infant’s birth weight should double by 6 months of age. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are greater than the expected weight gain by 6 months of age.
26. Answer C is correct. The symptoms of nontropical sprue as well as those of celiac are caused by the ingestion of gluten, found in wheat, oats, barley, and rye. Creamed soup and crackers as well as some cold cuts contain gluten. Answers A, B, and D do not contain gluten; therefore, they are incorrect.
27. Answer A is correct. Lanoxin slows and strengthens the contraction of the heart. An increase in urinary output shows that the medication is having a desired effect by eliminating excess fluid from the body. Answer B is incorrect because the weight would decrease. Answer C is not related to the medication; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because pedal edema would decrease, not increase.
28. Answer B is correct. The toddler has gross motor skills suited to playing with a ball, which can be kicked forward or thrown overhand. Answers A and C are incorrect because they require fine motor skills. Answer D is incorrect because the toddler lacks gross motor skills for play on the swing set.
29. Answer C is correct. Jitteriness and irritability are signs of alcohol withdrawal in the newborn. Answer A is incorrect because it would be associated with use more recent than 1 day ago. Answers B and D are characteristics of a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome, but they are not a priority at this time; therefore, they are incorrect.
30. Answer A is correct. Antacids containing aluminum tend to cause constipation. Answers B, C, and D are not common side effects of the medication.
31. Answer D is correct. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm frequently complains of pulsations or feeling the heart beat in the abdomen. Answers A and C are incorrect because they are not associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm. Answer B is incorrect because back pain is not affected by changes in position.
32. Answer A is correct. The client with nephotic syndrome will be treated with immunosuppressive drugs. Limiting visitors will decrease the chance of infection. Answer B is incorrect because the client needs additional protein. Answer C is incorrect because dialysis is not indicated for the client with nephrotic syndrome. Answer D is incorrect because additional fluids are not needed until the client begins diuresis.
33. Answer A is correct. The client with acute adrenal crisis has symptoms of hypovolemia and shock; therefore, the blood pressure would be low. Answer B is incorrect because the pulse would be rapid and irregular. Answer C is incorrect because the skin would be cool and pale. Answer D is incorrect because the urinary output would be decreased.
34. Answer B is correct. Tenseness of the anterior fontanel indicates an increase in intracranial pressure. Answer A is incorrect because periorbital edema is not associated with meningitis. Answer C is incorrect because a positive Babinski reflex is normal in the infant. Answer D is incorrect because it relates to the preterm infant, not the infant with meningitis.
35. Answer B is correct. The client’s priority nursing diagnosis is based on his risk for self-injury. Answers A, C, and D focus on the client’s psychosocial needs, which do not take priority over physiological needs; therefore, they are incorrect.
36. Answer D is correct.
The recommended dose ranges from 175mg to 350mg per day based on the infant’s weight. The order as written calls for 400mg per day for an infant weighing 7kg; therefore, the nurse should check the order with the doctor before giving the medication. Answer A is incorrect because the dosage exceeds the recommended amount. Answers B and C are incorrect choices because they involve changing the doctor’s order.
37. Answer B is correct. Bright red bleeding with many clots indicates arterial bleeding that requires surgical intervention. Answer A is within normal limits, answer C indicates venous bleeding, which can be managed by nursing intervention, and answer D does not indicate excessive need for pain management that requires the doctor’s attention; therefore, they are incorrect.
38. Answer C is correct. The child will need additional fluids in summer to prevent dehydration that could lead to a sickle cell crises. Answer A is not a true statement; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the activity will create a greater oxygen demand and precipitate sickle cell crises. Answer D is not a true statement; therefore, it is incorrect.
39. Answer C is correct. The client should be assessed following completion of antibiotic therapy to determine whether the infection has cleared. Answer A would be done if there are repeated instances of otitis media, answer B is incorrect because it will not determine whether the child has completed the medication, and answer D is incorrect because the purpose of the recheck is to determine whether the infection is gone.
40. Answer A is correct. The child with Sydenham’s chorea will exhibit irregular movements of the extremities, facial grimacing, and labile moods. Answer B is incorrect because it describes subcutaneous nodules. Answer C is incorrect because it describes erythema marginatum. Answer D is incorrect because it describes polymigratory arthritis.
41. Answer D is correct. The primary reason for placing a child with croup under a mist tent is to liquefy secretions and relieve laryngeal spasms. Answers A, B, and C are inaccurate statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
42. Answer C is correct. The recommended setting for performing tracheostomy suctioning on the adult client is 80–120mmHg. Answers A and B are incorrect because the amount of suction is too low. Answer D is incorrect because the amount of suction is excessive.
43. Answer B is correct. Symptoms of myxedema include weight gain, lethargy, slow speech, and decreased respirations. Answers A and D do not describe symptoms associated with myxedema; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer C describes symptoms associated with Graves’s disease.
44. Answer D is correct. The contagious stage of varicella begins 24 hours before the onset of the rash and lasts until all the lesions are crusted. Answers A, B, and C are inaccurate regarding the time of contagion.
45. Answer B is correct. The child with cystic fibrosis has sweat concentrations of chloride greater than 60mEq/L. Answers A and C are incorrect because they refer to potassium concentrations that are not used in making a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Answer D is incorrect because the sweat concentration of chloride is too low to be diagnostic.
46. Answer B is correct. The nurse should question the order because administering a narcotic so close to the time of delivery can result in respiratory depression in the newborn. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because giving the medication prior to or during delivery can cause respiratory depression in the newborn.
47. Answer C is correct. During concrete operations, the child’s thought processes become more logical and coherent. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they describe other types of development: sensorimotor, intuitive, and formal.
48. Answer C is correct. Delusions of grandeur are associated with feelings of low selfesteem. Answer A is incorrect because reaction formation, a defense mechanism, is characterized by outward emotions that are the opposite of internal feelings. Answers B and D can cause an increase in the client’s delusions but do not explain their purpose; therefore, they are incorrect.
9. Answer A is correct. Tomatoes are a poor source of iron, although they are an excellent source of vitamin C, which increases iron absorption. Answers B, C, and D are good sources of iron; therefore, they are incorrect.
10. Answer D is correct. Serum amylase levels greater than 200 units/dL help confirm the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Elevations of blood glucose occur with conditions other than acute pancreatitis; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Elevations in WBC are associated with infection and are not specific to acute pancreatitis; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is within the normal range; therefore, it is incorrect.
11. Answer A is correct. Periodically lying in a prone position without a pillow will help prevent the flexion of the spine that occurs with Parkinson’s disease. Answers B and C flex the spine; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is not realistic because position changes during sleep; therefore, it is incorrect.
12. Answer C is correct. The medication should be administered slowly (no more than 50mg per minute); otherwise, cardiac arrhythmias can occur. Answer A is incorrect because the medication must be given slowly. Dextrose solutions cause the medication to crystallize in the line and the medication should be given through a large vein to prevent “purple glove” syndrome; therefore, answers B and D are incorrect.
13. Answer B is correct. The client recovering from acute pancreatitis needs a diet that is high in calories and low in fat. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they can increase the client’s discomfort.
14. Answer A is correct. The client with polycythemia vera has an abnormal increase in the number of circulating red blood cells that results in increased viscosity of the blood. Increases in blood pressure further tax the overworked heart. Answers B, C, and D do not directly relate to the condition; therefore, they are incorrect.
15. Answer B is correct. Dressing in extra layers of clothing will help decrease the feeling of being cold that is experienced by the client with hypothyroidism. Decreased sensation and decreased alertness are common in the client with hypothyroidism. The use of electric blankets and heating pads can result in burns, making answers A and C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the client with hypothyroidism has dry skin, and a hot bath morning and evening would make her condition worse.
16. Answer A is correct.
An ICP of 17mmHg should be reported to the doctor because it is elevated. (The ICP normally ranges from 4mmHg to 10mmHg, with upper limits of 15mmHg.) Answer B is incorrect because the pressure is not normal. Answer C is incorrect because the pressure is not low. Answer D is incorrect because the ICP reading provides a more reliable measurement than the Glascow coma scale.
17. Answer D is correct.
A history of frequent alcohol and tobacco use is the most significant factor in the development of cancer of the larynx. Answers A, B, and C are also factors in the development of laryngeal cancer but they are not the most significant; therefore, they are incorrect.
18. Answer B is correct. Numbness and tingling in the extremities is common in the client with pernicious anemia, but not those with other types of anemia. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are symptoms of all types of anemia.
19. Answer A is correct. Lying prone and allowing the feet to hang over the end of the mattress will help prevent flexion contractures. The client should be told to do this several times a day. Answers B, C, and D do not help prevent flexion contractures; therefore, they are incorrect.
20. Answer B is correct. The client with echolalia will repeat words or phrases used by others. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to clang association. Answer C is incorrect because it refers to circumstantiality. Answer D is incorrect because it refers to neologisms.
26. Answer C is correct. The symptoms of nontropical sprue as well as those of celiac are caused by the ingestion of gluten, found in wheat, oats, barley, and rye. Creamed soup and crackers as well as some cold cuts contain gluten. Answers A, B, and D do not contain gluten; therefore, they are incorrect.
27. Answer A is correct. Lanoxin slows and strengthens the contraction of the heart. An increase in urinary output shows that the medication is having a desired effect by eliminating excess fluid from the body. Answer B is incorrect because the weight would decrease. Answer C is not related to the medication; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because pedal edema would decrease, not increase.
28. Answer B is correct. The toddler has gross motor skills suited to playing with a ball, which can be kicked forward or thrown overhand. Answers A and C are incorrect because they require fine motor skills. Answer D is incorrect because the toddler lacks gross motor skills for play on the swing set.
29. Answer C is correct. Jitteriness and irritability are signs of alcohol withdrawal in the newborn. Answer A is incorrect because it would be associated with use more recent than 1 day ago. Answers B and D are characteristics of a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome, but they are not a priority at this time; therefore, they are incorrect.
31. Answer D is correct. The client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm frequently complains of pulsations or feeling the heart beat in the abdomen. Answers A and C are incorrect because they are not associated with abdominal aortic aneurysm. Answer B is incorrect because back pain is not affected by changes in position.
32. Answer A is correct. The client with nephotic syndrome will be treated with immunosuppressive drugs. Limiting visitors will decrease the chance of infection. Answer B is incorrect because the client needs additional protein. Answer C is incorrect because dialysis is not indicated for the client with nephrotic syndrome. Answer D is incorrect because additional fluids are not needed until the client begins diuresis.
33. Answer A is correct. The client with acute adrenal crisis has symptoms of hypovolemia and shock; therefore, the blood pressure would be low. Answer B is incorrect because the pulse would be rapid and irregular. Answer C is incorrect because the skin would be cool and pale. Answer D is incorrect because the urinary output would be decreased.
34. Answer B is correct. Tenseness of the anterior fontanel indicates an increase in intracranial pressure. Answer A is incorrect because periorbital edema is not associated with meningitis. Answer C is incorrect because a positive Babinski reflex is normal in the infant. Answer D is incorrect because it relates to the preterm infant, not the infant with meningitis.
35. Answer B is correct. The client’s priority nursing diagnosis is based on his risk for self-injury. Answers A, C, and D focus on the client’s psychosocial needs, which do not take priority over physiological needs; therefore, they are incorrect.
37. Answer B is correct. Bright red bleeding with many clots indicates arterial bleeding that requires surgical intervention. Answer A is within normal limits, answer C indicates venous bleeding, which can be managed by nursing intervention, and answer D does not indicate excessive need for pain management that requires the doctor’s attention; therefore, they are incorrect.
38. Answer C is correct. The child will need additional fluids in summer to prevent dehydration that could lead to a sickle cell crises. Answer A is not a true statement; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the activity will create a greater oxygen demand and precipitate sickle cell crises. Answer D is not a true statement; therefore, it is incorrect.
40. Answer A is correct. The child with Sydenham’s chorea will exhibit irregular movements of the extremities, facial grimacing, and labile moods. Answer B is incorrect because it describes subcutaneous nodules. Answer C is incorrect because it describes erythema marginatum. Answer D is incorrect because it describes polymigratory arthritis.
41. Answer D is correct. The primary reason for placing a child with croup under a mist tent is to liquefy secretions and relieve laryngeal spasms. Answers A, B, and C are inaccurate statements; therefore, they are incorrect.
43. Answer B is correct. Symptoms of myxedema include weight gain, lethargy, slow speech, and decreased respirations. Answers A and D do not describe symptoms associated with myxedema; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer C describes symptoms associated with Graves’s disease.
44. Answer D is correct. The contagious stage of varicella begins 24 hours before the onset of the rash and lasts until all the lesions are crusted. Answers A, B, and C are inaccurate regarding the time of contagion.
45. Answer B is correct. The child with cystic fibrosis has sweat concentrations of chloride greater than 60mEq/L. Answers A and C are incorrect because they refer to potassium concentrations that are not used in making a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Answer D is incorrect because the sweat concentration of chloride is too low to be diagnostic.
46. Answer B is correct. The nurse should question the order because administering a narcotic so close to the time of delivery can result in respiratory depression in the newborn. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because giving the medication prior to or during delivery can cause respiratory depression in the newborn.
47. Answer C is correct. During concrete operations, the child’s thought processes become more logical and coherent. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they describe other types of development: sensorimotor, intuitive, and formal.
48. Answer C is correct. Delusions of grandeur are associated with feelings of low selfesteem. Answer A is incorrect because reaction formation, a defense mechanism, is characterized by outward emotions that are the opposite of internal feelings. Answers B and D can cause an increase in the client’s delusions but do not explain their purpose; therefore, they are incorrect.
49. Answer D is correct. According to Kohlberg, in the preconventional stage of development, the behavior of the preschool child is determined by the consequences of the behavior. Answers A, B, and C describe other stages of moral development; therefore, they are incorrect.
50. Answer D is correct. Respiratory stridor is a symptom of partial airway obstruction. Answers A, B, and C are expected with a tonsillectomy; therefore, they are incorrect.
51. Answer C is correct. Pain associated with duodenal ulcers is lessened if the client eats a meal or snack. Answer A is incorrect because it makes the pain worse. Answer B lessens the discomfort of dumping syndrome; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D lessens the discomfort of gastroesophageal reflux; therefore, it is incorrect.
52. Answer A is correct.
Diminished femoral pulses are a sign of coarctation of the aorta. Answers B, C, and D are found in normal newborns and are not associated with cardiac anomaly.
50. Answer D is correct. Respiratory stridor is a symptom of partial airway obstruction. Answers A, B, and C are expected with a tonsillectomy; therefore, they are incorrect.
51. Answer C is correct. Pain associated with duodenal ulcers is lessened if the client eats a meal or snack. Answer A is incorrect because it makes the pain worse. Answer B lessens the discomfort of dumping syndrome; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D lessens the discomfort of gastroesophageal reflux; therefore, it is incorrect.
52. Answer A is correct.
Diminished femoral pulses are a sign of coarctation of the aorta. Answers B, C, and D are found in normal newborns and are not associated with cardiac anomaly.
53. Answer D is correct.
A severe complication associated with Kawasaki’s disease is the development of a giant aneurysm. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they have no relationship to Kawasaki’s disease.
54. Answer A is correct.
A nosebleed in the client with mild preeclampsia may indicate that the client’s blood pressure is elevated. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the client will not need strict bed rest, pedal edema is common in the client with preeclampsia, and the client does not need to avoid sodium, although the client should limit or avoid high-sodium foods.
55. Answer B is correct. The client taking an MAO inhibitor should avoid over-the-counter medications for colds and hayfever because many contain pseudoephedrine. Combining an MAO inhibitor with pseudoephedrine can result in extreme elevations in blood pressure. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to the client taking an antipsychotic medication such as Thorazine. Answer C is not specific to the client taking an MAO inhibitor and answer D does not apply to the question.
56. Answer C is correct. Foods containing rice or millet are permitted in the diet of the client with celiac disease. Answers A, B, and D are not permitted because they contain gluten, which exacerbates the symptoms of celiac disease; therefore, they are incorrect.
57. Answer B is correct. Increased thirst and increased urination are signs of lithium toxicity. Answers A and D are not associated with the use of lithium; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer C is an expected side effect of the medication; therefore, it is incorrect.
58. Answer A is correct. During dehydration, the kidneys compensate for electrolyte imbalance by retaining potassium. The nurse should check for urinary output before adding potassium to the IV fluid. Answer B is incorrect because it measures respiratory compensation caused by dehydration. Answers C and D do not apply to the use of intravenous fluid with potassium; therefore, they are incorrect.
A severe complication associated with Kawasaki’s disease is the development of a giant aneurysm. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they have no relationship to Kawasaki’s disease.
54. Answer A is correct.
A nosebleed in the client with mild preeclampsia may indicate that the client’s blood pressure is elevated. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because the client will not need strict bed rest, pedal edema is common in the client with preeclampsia, and the client does not need to avoid sodium, although the client should limit or avoid high-sodium foods.
55. Answer B is correct. The client taking an MAO inhibitor should avoid over-the-counter medications for colds and hayfever because many contain pseudoephedrine. Combining an MAO inhibitor with pseudoephedrine can result in extreme elevations in blood pressure. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to the client taking an antipsychotic medication such as Thorazine. Answer C is not specific to the client taking an MAO inhibitor and answer D does not apply to the question.
56. Answer C is correct. Foods containing rice or millet are permitted in the diet of the client with celiac disease. Answers A, B, and D are not permitted because they contain gluten, which exacerbates the symptoms of celiac disease; therefore, they are incorrect.
57. Answer B is correct. Increased thirst and increased urination are signs of lithium toxicity. Answers A and D are not associated with the use of lithium; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer C is an expected side effect of the medication; therefore, it is incorrect.
58. Answer A is correct. During dehydration, the kidneys compensate for electrolyte imbalance by retaining potassium. The nurse should check for urinary output before adding potassium to the IV fluid. Answer B is incorrect because it measures respiratory compensation caused by dehydration. Answers C and D do not apply to the use of intravenous fluid with potassium; therefore, they are incorrect.
59. Answer C is correct. The immunization protects the child against diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and H. influenza b. Answer A is incorrect because a second injection is given before 4 years of age. Answer B is not a true statement and answer D is not a one-time injection, nor does it protect against measles, mumps, rubella, or varicella.
60. Answer C is correct. A weight gain of 6 pounds in a week in the client taking glucocorticoids indicates that the dosage should be modified. Answers A and B are not specific to the question; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is an expected side effect of the medication; therefore, it is incorrect.
61. Answer B is correct. Assessing fetal heart tones reveals whether fetal distress occurred with rupture of the membranes. Answers A, C, and D are later interventions; therefore, they are incorrect.
62. Answer B is correct. Synthroid (levothyroxine) increases metabolic rate and cardiac output. Adverse reactions include tachycardia and dysrhythmias; therefore, the client should be taught to check her heart rate before taking the medication. Answer A is incorrect because the client does not have to take the medication after breakfast. Answer C does not relate to the medication; therefore, it is incorrect. The medication should not be stopped because of gastric upset; therefore, Answer D is incorrect
63. Answer D is correct. The nurse should wear a special badge when taking care of the client with a radioactive implant, to measure the amount of time spent in the room. The nurse should limit the time of radiation exposure; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Standing at the foot of the bed of a client with a radioactive cervical implant increases the nurse’s exposure to radiation; therefore, answer B is incorrect. The nurse does not have to avoid handling items used by the client; therefore, answer C is incorrect.
64. Answer D is correct. The milkshake will provide needed calories and nutrients for the client with mania. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect choices because they do not provide as many calories or nutrients as the milkshake.
65. Answer D is correct. The maximal effects from tricyclic antidepressants might not be achieved for up to 6 months after the medication is started. Answers A and B are incorrect because the time for maximal effects is too brief. Answer C is incorrect because it refers to the initial symptomatic relief rather than maximal effects.
66. Answer C is correct. Beta blockers such as timolol (Timoptic) can cause bronchospasms in the client with chronic obstructive lung disease. Timoptic is not contraindicated for use in the client with diabetes, gastric ulcers, or pancreatitis; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
67. Answer A is correct. The child with intussusception has stools that contain blood and mucus, which are described as “currant jelly” stools. Answer B is a symptom of pyloric stenosis; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer C is a symptom of Hirschsprungs; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer D is a symptom of Wilms tumor; therefore, it is incorrect.
68. Answer C is correct. The infant with biliary atresia has abdominal distention, poor weight gain, and clay-colored stools. Answers A, B, and D do describe the symptoms associated with biliary atresia; therefore, they are incorrect.
69. Answer D is correct. The nurse should not use water, soap, or lotion on the area marked for radiation therapy. Answer A is incorrect because it would remove the marking. Answers B and C are not necessary for the client receiving radiation; therefore, they are incorrect.
70. Answer B is correct. Blood alcohol concentrations of 400–600mg/dL are associated with respiratory depression, coma, and death. Answer A occurs with blood alcohol concentrations of 50mg/dL, which affects coordination and speech but does not cause respiratory depression; therefore, it is incorrect. Answers C and D are associated with alcohol withdrawal, not overdose; therefore, they are incorrect.
71. Answer A is correct. Following a hypophysectomy, the nurse should check the client’s blood sugar because insulin levels may rise rapidly resulting in hypoglycemia. Answer B is incorrect because suctioning should be avoided. Answer C is incorrect because the client’s head should be elevated to reduce pressure on the operative site. Answer D is incorrect because coughing increases pressure on the operative site that can lead to a leak of cerebral spinal fluid.
72. Answer C is correct. Acarbose is to be taken with the first bite of a meal. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they specify the wrong schedule for taking the medication.
73. Answer B is correct. The client going for therapy in the hyperbaric oxygen chamber requires no special skin care; therefore, washing the skin with water and patting it dry are suitable. Lotions, petroleum products, perfumes, and occlusive dressings interfere with oxygenation of the skin; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
74. Answer C is correct. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive production of dilute urine. A decline in urinary output shows that the medication is having its intended effect. Answers A and D do not relate to the question; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer B refers to diabetes mellitus; therefore, it is incorrect.
75. Answer C is correct. Positioning the client on her left side will take pressure off the vena cava and allow better oxygenation of the fetus. Answers A and B do not relieve pressure on the vena cava; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is the preferred position for the client with a prolapsed cord; therefore, it is incorrect for this situation.
76. Answer A is correct. Prothrombin time measures the therapeutic level of Coumadin. Answer B is incorrect because it measures the quantity of each specific clotting factor. Answer C is incorrect because it measures the therapeutic level of heparin. Answer D is incorrect because it evaluates the vascular and platelet factors associated with hemostasis.
77. Answer C is correct. Accutane is made from concentrated vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin. Fat-soluble vitamins have the potential of being hepatotoxic, so a liver panel is needed. Answers A, B, and D do not relate to therapy with Accutane; therefore, they are incorrect.
78. Answer A is correct. The client’s WBC is only slightly elevated and is most likely due to the birth process. Answer B is incorrect because the WBC would be more elevated if an acute bacterial infection was present. Answer C is incorrect because viral infections usually do not cause elevations in WBC. Answer D is incorrect because dehydration is not reflected by changes in the WBC.
79. Answer B is correct. PKU screening is usually done on the third day of life. Answer A is incorrect because the baby will not have had sufficient time to ingest protein sources of phenylalanine. Answer C is incorrect because blood is obtained from a heel stick, not from cord blood. Answer D is incorrect because the first immunizations are done at 6 weeks of age, and by that time, brain damage will already have occurred if the baby has PKU.
80. Answer B is correct. The client’s blood gases indicate respiratory alkalosis. Answers A, C, and D are not reflected by the client’s blood gases or present condition; therefore, they are incorrect.
81. Answer D is correct. Cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure, is characterized by edema of the legs and feet, enlarged liver, and distended neck veins. Answer A is incorrect because the symptoms are those of left-sided heart failure and pulmonary edema. Answer B is not specific to the question; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it does not relate to cor pulmonale.
82. Answer C is correct. The primary reason for the NG to is to allow for nourishment without contamination of the suture line. Answer A is not a true statement; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because there is no mention of suction. Answer D is incorrect because the oral mucosa was not involved in the laryngectomy.
83. Answer D is correct. The client’s complaints are due to swelling associated with surgery and catheter placement. Answer A is incorrect because it will not relieve the client’s symptoms of pain and dribbling. Answer B is incorrect because perineal exercises will not help relieve the post-operative pain. Answer C is incorrect because the client’s complaints do not indicate the need for catheter reinsertion.
84. Answer B is correct. The chest-drainage system can be disconnected from suction, but the chest tube should remain unclamped to prevent a tension pneumothorax. Answer A is incorrect because it could result in a tension pneumothorax. Answer C is not a true statement; therefore, it is not correct. Answer D is incorrect because the chest-drainage system should be kept lower than the client’s chest and shoulders.
81. Answer D is correct. Cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure, is characterized by edema of the legs and feet, enlarged liver, and distended neck veins. Answer A is incorrect because the symptoms are those of left-sided heart failure and pulmonary edema. Answer B is not specific to the question; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it does not relate to cor pulmonale.
82. Answer C is correct. The primary reason for the NG to is to allow for nourishment without contamination of the suture line. Answer A is not a true statement; therefore, it is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because there is no mention of suction. Answer D is incorrect because the oral mucosa was not involved in the laryngectomy.
83. Answer D is correct. The client’s complaints are due to swelling associated with surgery and catheter placement. Answer A is incorrect because it will not relieve the client’s symptoms of pain and dribbling. Answer B is incorrect because perineal exercises will not help relieve the post-operative pain. Answer C is incorrect because the client’s complaints do not indicate the need for catheter reinsertion.
84. Answer B is correct. The chest-drainage system can be disconnected from suction, but the chest tube should remain unclamped to prevent a tension pneumothorax. Answer A is incorrect because it could result in a tension pneumothorax. Answer C is not a true statement; therefore, it is not correct. Answer D is incorrect because the chest-drainage system should be kept lower than the client’s chest and shoulders.
85. Answer B is correct. Cardiac dysrhythmias are the most common complication for the client with a myocardial infarction. Answers A and C do not relate to myocardial infarction; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because it is not the most common complication following a myocardial infarction.
85. Answer B is correct. Cardiac dysrhythmias are the most common complication for the client with a myocardial infarction. Answers A and C do not relate to myocardial infarction; therefore, they are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because it is not the most common complication following a myocardial infarction.
86. Answer A is correct. Elevations in temperature increase the cardiac output. Answer B is incorrect because temperature elevations are not associated with cardiac tamponade. Answer C is incorrect because temperature elevation does not decrease cardiac output. Answer D is incorrect because elevations in temperature in the client with a coronary artery bypass graft indicate inflammation, not necessarily graft rejection.
87. Answer A is correct. The client with expressive aphasia has trouble forming words that are understandable. Answer B is incorrect because it describes receptive aphasia. Answer C refers to apraxia and answer D refers to agnosia, so they are incorrect.
88. Answer D is correct. The client taking MAOI, including Parnate, should avoid eating aged cheeses, such as cheddar cheese, because a hypertensive crisis can result. Answer A is incorrect because processed cheese is less likely to produce a hypertensive crisis. Answers B and C do not cause a hypertensive crisis in the client taking an MAOI; therefore, they are incorrect.
89. Answer C is correct. The client with rheumatoid arthritis needs to continue moving affected joints within the limits of pain. Answer A and D are incorrect because they will increase stiffness and joint disuse. Answer B is incorrect because, if done correctly, passive range-of-motion exercises will improve the use of affected joints.
90. Answer B is correct. Exposed abdominal visera should be covered with a sterile saline-soaked gauze, and the doctor should be notified immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the dressing should be sterile, not clean. Answer C is incorrect because attempting to replace abdominal contents can cause greater injury and should be done only surgically. Answer D is incorrect because the area is kept moist only with sterile normal saline.
91. Answer C is correct. Using the ABCD approach to the client with multiple trauma the nurse in the ER would: establish an airway, determine whether the client is breathing, check circulation (control hemorrhage), and check for deficits (head injuries). Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not in the appropriate sequence for maintaining life.
92. Answer A is correct. Stimulant medications such as Ritalin tend to cause anorexia and weight loss in some children with ADHD. Providing high-calorie snacks will help the child maintain an appropriate weight. Answer B is incorrect because the medication does not mask infection. Answer C is incorrect because the medication is a central nervous system stimulant, not a depressant. Answer D has no relationship to the medication; therefore, it is incorrect.
93. Answer A is correct. The most likely victim of elder abuse is the elderly female with a chronic, debilitating illness. Answers B, C, and D are less likely to be victims of elder abuse; therefore, they are incorrect.
94. Answer D is correct. Sunscreens of at least an SPF of 15 should be applied 20–30 minutes before going into the sun. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for sun protection.
95. Answer C is correct. Retinal hemorrhages are characteristically found in the child who has been violently shaken. Answers A, B, and D may result from trauma other than that related to abuse; therefore, they are incorrect.
96. Answer B is correct. The combination of the two medications produces a synergistic effect (an effect greater than that of either drug used alone). Agonist effects are similar to those produced by chemicals normally present in the body; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Antagonist effects are those in which the actions of the drugs oppose one another; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the drugs would have a combined depressing, not excitatory effect.
97. Answer B is correct. The client with a history of diabetes is most likely to deliver a preterm large for gestational age newborn. These newborns often lack sufficient surfactant levels to prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Answers A, C, and D are less likely to have newborns with respiratory distress syndrome so they are incorrect choices.
98. Answer D is correct. Nursing care of the client with cervical tongs includes performance of sterile pin care and assessment of the site. Answers A, B, and C alter the traction and could result in serious injury or death of the client; therefore, they are incorrect.
99. Answer A is correct. Chest drainage greater than 100mL per hour is excessive, and the doctor should be notified regarding possible hemorrhage. Confusion and restlessness could be in response to pain, changes in oxygenation, or the emergence from anesthesia; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it is an expected finding in the client recently returning from a CABG. Answer D is within normal limits; therefore, it is incorrect.
100. Answer C is correct. The medication should be withheld and the doctor should be notified. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide for the client’s safety.
CLICK HERE TO READ QUESTIONS OF PART 04 NOW
86. Answer A is correct. Elevations in temperature increase the cardiac output. Answer B is incorrect because temperature elevations are not associated with cardiac tamponade. Answer C is incorrect because temperature elevation does not decrease cardiac output. Answer D is incorrect because elevations in temperature in the client with a coronary artery bypass graft indicate inflammation, not necessarily graft rejection.
87. Answer A is correct. The client with expressive aphasia has trouble forming words that are understandable. Answer B is incorrect because it describes receptive aphasia. Answer C refers to apraxia and answer D refers to agnosia, so they are incorrect.
88. Answer D is correct. The client taking MAOI, including Parnate, should avoid eating aged cheeses, such as cheddar cheese, because a hypertensive crisis can result. Answer A is incorrect because processed cheese is less likely to produce a hypertensive crisis. Answers B and C do not cause a hypertensive crisis in the client taking an MAOI; therefore, they are incorrect.
89. Answer C is correct. The client with rheumatoid arthritis needs to continue moving affected joints within the limits of pain. Answer A and D are incorrect because they will increase stiffness and joint disuse. Answer B is incorrect because, if done correctly, passive range-of-motion exercises will improve the use of affected joints.
90. Answer B is correct. Exposed abdominal visera should be covered with a sterile saline-soaked gauze, and the doctor should be notified immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the dressing should be sterile, not clean. Answer C is incorrect because attempting to replace abdominal contents can cause greater injury and should be done only surgically. Answer D is incorrect because the area is kept moist only with sterile normal saline.
92. Answer A is correct. Stimulant medications such as Ritalin tend to cause anorexia and weight loss in some children with ADHD. Providing high-calorie snacks will help the child maintain an appropriate weight. Answer B is incorrect because the medication does not mask infection. Answer C is incorrect because the medication is a central nervous system stimulant, not a depressant. Answer D has no relationship to the medication; therefore, it is incorrect.
93. Answer A is correct. The most likely victim of elder abuse is the elderly female with a chronic, debilitating illness. Answers B, C, and D are less likely to be victims of elder abuse; therefore, they are incorrect.
94. Answer D is correct. Sunscreens of at least an SPF of 15 should be applied 20–30 minutes before going into the sun. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not allow sufficient time for sun protection.
95. Answer C is correct. Retinal hemorrhages are characteristically found in the child who has been violently shaken. Answers A, B, and D may result from trauma other than that related to abuse; therefore, they are incorrect.
96. Answer B is correct. The combination of the two medications produces a synergistic effect (an effect greater than that of either drug used alone). Agonist effects are similar to those produced by chemicals normally present in the body; therefore, answer A is incorrect. Antagonist effects are those in which the actions of the drugs oppose one another; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the drugs would have a combined depressing, not excitatory effect.
97. Answer B is correct. The client with a history of diabetes is most likely to deliver a preterm large for gestational age newborn. These newborns often lack sufficient surfactant levels to prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Answers A, C, and D are less likely to have newborns with respiratory distress syndrome so they are incorrect choices.
98. Answer D is correct. Nursing care of the client with cervical tongs includes performance of sterile pin care and assessment of the site. Answers A, B, and C alter the traction and could result in serious injury or death of the client; therefore, they are incorrect.
99. Answer A is correct. Chest drainage greater than 100mL per hour is excessive, and the doctor should be notified regarding possible hemorrhage. Confusion and restlessness could be in response to pain, changes in oxygenation, or the emergence from anesthesia; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because it is an expected finding in the client recently returning from a CABG. Answer D is within normal limits; therefore, it is incorrect.
100. Answer C is correct. The medication should be withheld and the doctor should be notified. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide for the client’s safety.
CLICK HERE TO READ QUESTIONS OF PART 04 NOW
100. Answer C is correct. The medication should be withheld and the doctor should be notified. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide for the client’s safety.
CLICK HERE TO READ QUESTIONS OF PART 04 NOW
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If it is a numerous option examination, method taking numerous selection inquiries that would certainly look like the inquiries on the author's purpose practice questions. One of the factors that this is a great concept is that you will certainly be prepared for taking the real test, instead of simply understanding the product actually well.
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